Richard Floyd explains a notorious example of Wittgenstein’s public thought.
What Does Wittgenstein Say?
First, let’s look at Wittgenstein’s direct discussion of the concept of a private language. Having been introduced at §243, private language does not appear again until §256, where Wittgenstein questions what it means to associate a word/sign with a sensation. How does this association take place? How does the association of a name with a sensation lead to that name actually meaning the sensation?
First, of course, we have to agree on the meaning of "sensations":
"Sensations are often ascribed particular properties: of being conscious and inner, of being more immediate than perception, and of being atomic. In epistemology sensations have been taken as infallible foundations of knowledge, in psychology as elementary constituents of perceptual experience." Routledge Encyclopedia of Philosophy
Got that?
Then, assuming that we can all agree on the appropriate definition, there's the part where we connect that to any particular sensation that we experience in regard to a particular word that we either hear or use given a particular set of circumstances.
That part of course is nowhere to be seen in this article. Let alone how a distinction might be made between the language that we share begetting sensations that can be communicated back and forth intelligibly and a "private language" begetting private sensations that cannot.
This addresses an issue which has been simmering since Wittgenstein first defined a private language by saying “the individual words of this language are to refer to what can only be known to the person speaking; to his immediate private sensations.” Does this mean that the entire vocabulary of the language must consist of words referring to the speaker’s private sensations? How then could such a language have any grammatical structure? There are other problems too. In §257 Wittgenstein claims that the private definition of words lacks the “stage-setting” necessary for language to be meaningful:
“When one says 'He gave a name to his sensation' one forgets that a great deal of stage-setting in the language is presupposed if the mere act of naming is to make sense. And when we speak of someone’s having given a name to pain, what is presupposed is the existence of the grammar of the word pain; it shews the post where the new word is stationed.”
On the other hand, I may well be misunderstanding the point he is making here. Still, aside from the purely personal reasons that someone might feel motivates them to create and then to sustain a "private language", this choice either will or will not spill over into their interactions with others. And that either will or will not cause conflicts.
And it is focusing in on social, political and economic conflicts in the is/ought world that is the main interest of me. What then of a "private language"?