So, you consider yourself fully qualified to decide when someone either does or does not “overthink” fascism? Given all that was at stake for literally millions when the old fascism was around.
Still, I don’t see why you can’t substantiate what the “modern” fascist construes to be rational behavior in regard to particular moral and political perspectives revolving around such things as race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation. Again, if only to make the proper distinction between their fascism back then and your fascism now.
Of course my own reaction to fascism still revolves around the assumption that, in regard to value judgments and political prejudices, one becomes a fascist given the manner in which I construe human identity here as the embodiment of dasein. “I” as an existential contraption. I’m just curious as to why my argument here is not deemed applicable by you to you.
And the extent to which you may well be just one more run of the mill objectivist.
On the contrary, with regard to value judgments of this sort, I make the distinction between things that individuals believe to be true in their head and that which they are able to demonstrate all rational men and women are obligated to believe in turn. There are, after all, any number of facts that can be demonstrated regarding fascism then and fascism now.
But what is the argument able to demonstrate that – morally, politically – fascism reflects the most reasonable assessment of human interactions?
Again, cite specific examples of this in contexts we are all likely to be familiar with.