James is wrong

Well. You and Jakob need to compare notes, because platonic forms are not affected.

You had this discussion with James before. At that time you stated that you never saw evidence of platonic forms, that every concept you can think of can only co-exist with the material.

This is what James answered:

And from another thread:

Yup, that’s what I used to argue.

Did you see this recent post of mine?

viewtopic.php?f=1&t=194004

Perfect logic.

The Buddhists have a saying called “dependent arising”. Which is more akin to your former quote from James about affect, except, platonic forms don’t need us to exist, they don’t need observers.

Could it be that James is simply replacing platonic forms with a supreme deity ? I wonder what James would say to my disproof of those 3 omnistates.

[quote=“Meno_”]
Just because ’ the always’ leaves the - not always, or, seldom, does not exclude it.

There for, Your change of mind is understandable because James need not. He is beyond change, because of the above argument.(Also beyond material manifestation.)

Your argument is nominal , but James’ is potentially implicit .The question about how he can distinguish is mute, because its not because he can’t. but wills not to-do so.

The question is reduced to zero, as a condition for such will.

So James might be wrong if he looses his will.

I’m pretty good at making sense of posts, and this one isn’t processing well in me.

The idea here is that platonic forms can be proven, and they can be proven to exist regardless of consciousness existing. They are a category of not being affected.

Clearly, a supreme being is defined as conscious.

Let’s understand further what knowledge is: a particular state of knowing.

Like I linked to prior, knowing that you DON’T know something is a state of knowledge, very common in fact. If a being doesn’t have this common knowledge about everything it knows, than it can be said to not possess all knowledge. To be everywhere, lacks the knowledge of what it’s like to not be everywhere, and you require presence for potence.

James is wrong on two things here:

Affectence
The Omni states he declared

I’ve seen a lot of knowledge and power in my life, and it takes a lesser person to interpret it like James …

The facts don’t support it… but ass kissing does

A Supreme being and/or Platonic forms as defined, what is meant by a nominal form of understanding. Whixjndoes not mean minimal in this context, bit reduced toward absurdity.

That it’s not to say such reduction is absurd, but that it approach, again , nominally toward absolute(zero)

Ecmandu, such conflation need an act of will, as to be able to exert a will, at the risk of being misunderstood.

Platonic forms have proof strength evidence, and are not nominal in that sense.

No act of will can bring about or destroy a platonic form.

The will is not necessarily in the innate sense of will to power, but in as described by You, in the sense of the Buddha , of letting go. That does not need to have a destructive mode, only quiet resignation toward a de-differentiated state of mind.

Umm… yeah, for the last three posts, you haven’t been talking to my content, but someone else entirely, not sure who though. I will comment on a phrase you used… de-differentiated state of mind. There is no such thing. I also argued that platonic forms refute the doctrine of dependent arising, and have no interest in a resignation of morality.

I am neither theist or Buddhist …

Platonic forms only exist as concepts so are actually nominal

Because they are outside the realm of physical experience

Platonic forms only exist as concepts so are actually nominal

Because they are outside the realm of physical experience[/quote

Of they are outside the realms of physical experience how can they exist , do concepts habe existence ?

Concepts are formulated by minds which can imagine many things that do not actually exist in reality

The human mind came up with the concept of Platonic forms which were not known to exist before then

So were there no human minds to perceive of them then Platonic forms could not exist as human concepts

Why do they have to be human minds? Perhaps some extraterrestrial minds or even cyborg or other minds create forms

forms:

Maybe forms are like the world, its unsure who or what created them, for surely the minds of men did not create the world , even as now interpreted as being composed of pure energy. Are things energy? If not, then how can energy be said to exist, in the a scholastic sense , when matter as energy was not yet conceived?

What can be said of energy minimally is , that it is uncertain to qualify as any thing. That it is some thing. when ’ thing ’ is redefined as a 'quantum particle" , that it is unseen, then it follows that its a probable entity.

They do not have to be human minds but they are the only ones known to actually exist that can conceive of such forms

But if other minds of at least equal intelligence exist elsewhere in the Universe then they have the ability to do likewise

They do not even have to be minds, they could be virtual structural building building blocks.

I recently discussed how the statement:

Morality is fake

Proves that morality is objective - even if every being agreed that morality was fake, they’d all be incorrect (that’s what makes it objective. The reason being; they thought it good to offer the statement.

Platonic forms work the same way, uncaused, eternal. Perception requires platonic forms, platonic forms do not require perception. Platonic forms are not subjected to being affected by perception beings.

This is why James is wrong.

This is true but it is also equally true that platonic forms may not actually exist outside of human perception

There is no way of knowing because they are non falsifiable by definition

They certainly aren’t non falsifiable, and definitely by definition.

It’s easy to prove a platonic form, as there being no other option!!

m.youtube.com/watch?v=ud3Mdz1dTqg

m.youtube.com/watch?t=414s&v=7QShMZxBa_E

These need to be rewound.

Or they simply like saying what they think is true and/or find it unpleasant when something they consider false is said and not countered with what they consider the truth. IOW they can see it in terms of desire, preferences, personal ones that is and not that it is good.

I define morality based on desire, – being able to have any experience you want without hurting anyone (but yourself if you so desire)