alteration?

It is clear that among the greatest philosophers like socrates,aristotle,and marcus that the monist are logically bound to identifiy,and that the pluralist to distingish,these changes.i’ve read other greater philosophers such as anaxagoras and empedocles who are pluralist and i’ve myself have found out they are inconsistent in their statement on the subject of the big question of mine.
Are coming-to-be and passing-away distinct from ‘alteration’???
i may have found the answer if i was looking in modern fields but i havee limited myself on ancient Greek philosophy to keep the mind of philsophy from getting strayed.